There are some objective observations one can make without eliciting a whole range of out-of-control conjectural opinions. For example, some people venture a new five-year Elliott wave count, without offering even the slightest resolution of the current week. I will try to avoid that by starting with some basic facts.
First let's look at the daily chart of the ES E-mini S&P500 Index Futures, below. In this chart, for graphic clarity wave a means the same thing as minute-a, or ((a)), or circle-a. But the chart gets muddy with all that stuff on it, so I'm keeping it clean.
ES E-Mini S&P500 Index Futures - Daily - With Indicators |
1. Price has 'currently' retraced to the 62% retracement level, and put in a red Doji candle today.
2. Price has run into the daily upper Bollinger Band (18-day variety), gray dashed lines.
3. Price has run into the 100-day simple moving average, green dashed line.
It is clear this is three different levels of overhead resistance. How much more does one need?
A fourth observation is that in mid-November, the NQ futures made a lower low for a true "flat" wave, whereas - as we commented before - the S&P500 could not even made the 90% level downward on the a wave to make a true flat wave. Therefore, it is not much conjecture to say that if there is a "b" wave anywhere on the chart, then the December high is it; otherwise the indexes get out of sync.
A Fibonacci fifth observation is that the daily slow stochastic is only "Over-bought" at this time. It is not re-embedded. At least not according to my chart service, and that is because the red line dropped below the 80 level on both 1/29 and 1/30.
These are the clear facts.
Now for some questions.
1. Aren't second waves supposed to retrace 62% ?
2. Aren't corrective waves supposed to be a little muddy as to their exact count?
3. What happens if another wedge forms here (suggested by the blue lines on the right)?
If, as the chart suggests that wedge would be a 'c' wave of 2, then it should wind up overlapping the 2,676 level - at least - so it overlaps the first wave of a potential diagonal.
Whether that happens or not remains to be seen. I can tell you - for sure - you just got more information here than I just got in my recent monthly edition of a newsletter from a major Elliott Wave organization. They didn't even take a stab at a count. But we're to believe them ???
Have a good start to your weekend.
TraderJoe
Thanks Joe! Have a great weekend and travel safe!
ReplyDeleteThanks for the update Joe and have a great weekend!
ReplyDeletethanks
ReplyDeleteif we overlap then we need 1 more attempt at high which is allowed to fail?
ReplyDeleteYes.
DeleteThank You for the update
ReplyDeleteMy pleasure.
DeleteThank you.
ReplyDeleteFrom Japan.
Thanks Joe for the update and analysis. Enjoy your weekend.
ReplyDeleteWelcome migration, and you too!
DeleteThanks TJ,
ReplyDeleteHow do you mean the indeces would get out of cync without the B wave? Do you mean because ndx did ”a true flat”, we can use this to make the same assumption on spx even though the count on spx is a bit more muddy? Because it’s not a lot of different ways one can label ndx as of now?
There is another way we can assume the december high was a B wave and not a 2. Maybe someone already mentioned this. Beacuse the down leg from 3/10 is bigger in time than down leg from 3/12 it ”should not” be counted as an expanded diagonal? Which means we ”should not” be in a wave 4 now?
DeleteYes, because true flats are not allowed to be the wave 2 or 4 of a diagonal. Waves 2 and 4 must be zigzags only, although the 'b' waves of their zigzags can be flats.
DeleteThanks!
DeleteI found some interesting general thoughts about the present market situation here
ReplyDeletehttps://www.ccmmarketmodel.com/short-takes/2019/2/2/is-the-stock-rally-skating-on-extremely-thin-ice
Interesting article supporting the bear case.
ReplyDeletehttps://www.marketwatch.com/story/the-evidence-is-in-stocks-are-in-a-bull-trap-2019-02-02
Hello Joe, I've been a follower of your blog for a long time. I've never posted until now but wanted first to share appreciation for your commitment to teaching. I often find myself at the end of the day wondering "what will Joe say about this?!" haha. I have a simple question about price gaps. Apologies in advance as this is pretty elementary. Looking all the way back to 10/3 when selling began, did the S&P leave a price gap going into 10/4? It appears there may be another one from 10/9 to 10/10?
ReplyDeleteHi Sam. Thanks for following, and nice to hear from you. Yes, there are two gaps there. What'cha thinkin?
DeleteHi TJ, why not A done now B up and then C down instead of 1 down and 2 up.
ReplyDeleteYour question is confusing. Please put price-points, dates to the labels.
DeleteFour touches and rejection at the 100 sma. The market must consider that area important. If the market has topped, any rallies up to a declining 100 sma appear to be shorting opportunities. Thank you for your work ET!
ReplyDelete@Joe
ReplyDeleteSome very general questions, unrelated one to the other:
1. How are "dividend payments" taken into account in S&P500 index and Wave analysis in general? I don't live in the US and all I know about S&P500 is what I read here. In the country I live, when dividends are paid, our stock index loses obviously some points, proportional to the loss in price of the stocks that paid dividends. Is it the same with S&P500? Does this alter/deform wave structure for our analysis purpose, as I think? I read (I know) that for stocks you should take into account the "dividend adjusted" price, is it the same for indexes like S&P500?
2. Fisher transform: every now and then you show, below your charts, Fisher transform and its divergences. Most times you show Awesome Oscillator besides for the 8-fold path, also for divergences. Is Fisher useful in some particular contexts?
3. Reading Dr. Alexander Elder's "Trading Divergences" he uses MACD-histograms for this reason "The only requirement is that those indicators must oscillate around a zero line. This is why MACD-Histogram can have a divergence while MACD Lines cannot – because MACD Lines do not oscillate around a zero line.
In order for a classic divergence to emerge, an indicator has to cross its zero line between the two bottoms or tops. If there is no crossover, there is no divergence.". Do you agree with his view?
For first question, see this link (copy and paste link as needed) and look at paragraph entitled 'Versions'.
Deletehttps://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/S%26P_500_Index
For the second question, see the third chart in the next day's post.
DeleteFor the third question, Bill Williams answered it in detail with extensive testing on super-computers.
DeleteThanks x3 ;)
DeleteA new post was started for the next day.
ReplyDelete